Читать книгу: «Der schnelle Weg zum Flugfunkzeugnis für IFR», страница 2

Hans Ulrich Kriens

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R

R Red

R… Restricted area (followed by identification)

R… Radial (followed by Mag track

R Right (runway identification)

RA Rain

RAF Royal Air Force

RAG Runway arresting gear

RASN Moderate rain and snow

RCA Reach cruising altitude

RCAF Royal Canadian Air Force

RCC Rescue coordination centre

RCF Radio communication failure message

RCL Runway centre line

RDH Reference datum height (for ILS )

RDL Radial

RDO Radio

RE Recent (used to qualify weather phenomena such as rain, e.g. recent rain = RERA)

REC Receive or receiver

REF Reference to… or to …

REG Registration

REP Reporting point

REQ Request or requested

RFL Requested flight level

RFP Replacement Flight Plan

RG Range (lights)

RIF Reclearance öin flight

RMK Remark

RNAV Area Navigation

RNG Radio Range

ROFOR Route forecast (in aeronautical meteorological code)

RON Receiving only

RPL Repetitive flight plan

RPS Radar position symbol

RPT Repeat or I repeat

RQS Request supplementary flight plan message

RSC Rescue sub-centre

RSP Responder beacon

RSR En-route surveillance radar

RT Right turn

RTD Delayed (used to indicate delayed meteorological messages)

RTF Radiotelephone

RTG Radiotelegraph

RTT Radioteletypewriter

RUT Standard regional route transmitter frequencies

RV Rescue vessel

RVR Runway visual range

RWY Runway

S

S South or southern latitude

SA Duststorm, sandstorm, rising dust or rising sand

SAP As soon as possible

SAR Search and Rescue

SARPS Standards and Recommended Practices (ICAO)

Sat Saturday

SB Self-Briefing

SC Straticumulus

SCT Scattered

SE Southeast

SEC Seconds

SELCAL Selective Calling System ( A system which permits the selective calling of individual aircraft over radiotelephony channels linking a ground station with the aircraft)

SEP September

SEV Severe (used e.g. to qualify icing and turbulence reports)

SFC Surface

SG Snow grains

SH Showers

SHF Super high frequency (3000 –30000 MHz)

SHRA Moderate rain shower

SHRASN Moderate shower with rain and snow

SHSN Moderate snow shower

SID Standard instrument departure

SIF Selective identification feature

SIGMET Information concerning en-route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of aircraft operations

SIGWX Significant weather

SIMUL Simultaneous or simultaneously

SIWL Single isolated wheel load

SKC Sky clear

SKED Schedule or scheduled

SLAP Slot Allocation Procedure

SMC Surface movement control

SMR Surface movement radar

SN Snow

SNOWTAM A special series NOTAM notifying the presence or removal of hazardous conditions due to snow, ice, slush or standing water associated with snow, slush and ice on the movement area, by means of specific format

SPECI Aviation selected special weather report (in aeronautical meteorological code)

SPL Supplementary flight plan message

SPOC SAR point of contact

SQ Squall

SQL Squall line

SR Sunrise

SRE Surveillance Radar

SRG Short range

SRR Search and rescue region

SS Sunset

SSE South-southeast

SSR Secondary surveillance radar

SST Supersonic transport

SSW South-southwest

ST Stratus

STA Straight in approach

STA Scheduled time of arrival (aircraft on blocks)

STAR Standard (instrument) arrival

STD Scheduled time of departure (aircraft off blocks)

STF Step down fix

STOL Short take-off and landing

STS Status

SUBJ Subject to

Sun Sunday

SUPPS Regional supplementary procedures

SVC Service message

SVCBL Serviceable

SW Southwest

SWC Significant weather chart

SWY Stopway

T

t Ton(s) (weight)

T Temperature

TA Transition altitude

TACAN UHF Tactical Air Navigation Aid

TAF Aerodrome forecast

TAR Terminal area surveillance radar

TAS True airspeed

TAX Tyxiing or taxi

TC Tropical cyclone

TCAS Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System

TCH Threshold crossing height

TCU Towering cumulus

TDZ Touchdown zone

TEL Telephone

TEMPO Temporary or temporarily

TFC Traffic

TGL Touch-and-go landing

THR Threshold

Thu Thursday

TIL Until

TKOF Take-off

TLOF Touchdown and lift-off area

TMA Terminal control area

TMZ Transponder Mandatory Zone

TODA Take-off distance available

TOP Cloud top

TORA Take-off run available

TP Turning point

TR Track

TRA Temporary reserved airspace

TRANS Transmits or transmitter

TS Thunderstorm

TSGR Thunderstorm with hail

TSSA Thunderstorm with duststorm or sandstorm

TT Teletypewriter

Tue Tuesday

TURB Turbulence

TVOR Terminal VOR

TWP Turning waypoint

TWR Aerodrome control tower or aerodrome control

TWY Taxiway

TXT Text

TYP Type of aircraft

U

UAC Upper area control centre

UDF UHF direction finding station

UFN Until further notice

UHF Ultra high frequency (300 to 3000 MHz)

UIC Upper information centre

UIR Upper information region

UNL Unlimited

UNREL Unreliable

U/S Unserviceable

USAFE US Air Force – Europe

USAEUR US Army – Europe

UTA Upper control area

UTC Co-ordinated Universal Time

V

VA Volcanic Ash

VAL Visual approach and landing chart

VAR Magnetic variation

VASIS Visual approach slope indicator system

VDF VHF direction finding station

VFR Visual flight rules

VHF Very high frequency (30 MHz to 300 MHz)

VIA By way of …

VIO Severe (used to qualify interference or static reports)

VIP Very important person

VIS Visibility

VLR Very long range

VMC Visual meteorological condition

VOLMET Meteorological information for aircraft in flight

VOR VHF Omnidirectional radio range

VORTAC VOR and TACAN combination

VOT VOR airborne equipment test facility

VRB Variable

Vs Stalling speed

VTOL Vertical take-off and landing

W

W West or western longitute

W White

WAFC World Area Forecast Centre

WAFS World Area Forecast System

WDI Wind direction indicator

Wed Wednesday

WEF With effect from or effective from

WGS World Geodetic System

WIE With immediate effect or effective immediately

WIP Work in progress

WNW West-northwest

WS Wind Sheer

WSPD Wind speed

WSW West-southwest

W/T Wind/temperature

WX Weather

X

XBAR Crossbar (of approach lighting system)

XS Atmospheric

Y

Y Yellow

YCZ Yellow caution zone (runway lighting)

yd Yard(s)

YR Your

Measurements
Air Pressure

Hektopascal (hPa)

Sometimes we also find inch in older instruments

Altitudes
Will be expressed and transmitted in feet
Breaking action
Friction coefficient

This is a part of the permanent snow plan applicable for the international airports. The mean friction coefficient will be indicated for each third for the runway. The breaking action will be measured continuously by the Skiddometer, the Surface-Friction-Tester or Tapley-Meter. All friction coefficients are measured and will be given on the basis of the following

0,40 and above	good	Code 5
0,39 – 0,36	medium to good	Code 4
0,35 – 0,30	medium	Code 3
0,29 – 0,26	medium to poor	Code 2
0,25 and below	poor	Code 1
unreliable	unreliable	Code 0

Horizontal velocity

The horizontal velocity will be indictated in nautical miles per hour and expressed in knots

Navigational distances

Nautical mile , NM and tenth of it.

1 nautical mile is equal of circle-minute of a great-circle. 1 NM = 1,852 km.

Runway

The identification of runway is expressed by numbers which indicate the magnetic direction of the runway.

Surface wind

The units of measurement used in flight operation for wind direction and velocity, except for take-off and landing, will be indicated in degrees true and knots.

(This means that wind direction readings given by the control tower for landing or departing aircraft are magnetic.

Time

We use worldwide in air traffic control the united time co-ordinated (UTC)

When transmitting the time, if there is no possibility of confusion, the minutes (two digits) are used only.

Vertikal Velocity

Feet per minute (ft/min)

Visual distances

Will be expressed in Metres or Kilometres

Questions on Chapter 1

1. Select the correct definition for "estimated time of arrival" in respect to IFR flights.

a) The time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will arrive over that designated point defined by reference to navigation aids, from which it is intended, that an instrument approach will be commenced

b) The time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will arrive over the designated point defined by reference to visual aids, from which it is intended, that an approach will be commenced

c) The time at which the aircraft will actually arrive over that designated point defined by reference to navigation aids, from which it is intended, that a visual approach will be commenced

d) In any case that time at which the aircraft will arrive over the aerodrome

2. What does the term "aeronautical station" mean?

a) A station in the aeronautical mobile service located on land or, in certain instances, on board of a ship or on a platform at sea

b) Any station established to exchange radiotelephony communications

c) A station in the aeronautical telecommunication service located on land or on board of an aircraft to exchange radiotelephony communications

d) A station forming part of the aeronautical telecommunication network

3. What does the term "blind transmission" mean?

a) A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific station or stations

b) A transmission of messages relating to en-route weather information which may affect the safety of aircraft operations that is not addressed to a specific station or stations

c) A transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station

d) A transmission from one station to another station in circumstances where two-way communication cannot be established but where it is believed that the called station is able to receive the transmission

4. What does the term "broadcast" mean?

a) A radiotelephony transmission from a ground station to aircraft in flight

b) A transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station

c) A transmission containing meteorological and operational information to aircraft engaged in flights over remote and oceanic areas out of range of VHF ground stations

d) A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific station or stations

5. What does the term "air-ground communication" mean?

a) Two-way communication between aircraft and stations or locations on the surface of the earth

b) One-way communication from aircraft to stations or locations on the surface of the earth

c) One-way communication from stations or locations on the surface of the earth

d) Any communication from aircraft to ground stations requiring handling by the Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunication Network (AFTN)

6. What does the term "clearance limit" mean?

a) The time of expiry of an air traffic control clearance

b) The time at which an aircraft is given an air traffic control clearance

c) A point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance

d) The time after which an air traffic control clearance will be automatically cancelled if the flight has not been commenced

7. What does the term "expected approach time" mean?

a) The time at which an arriving aircraft, upon reaching the radio aid serving the destination aerodrome, will commence the instrument approach procedure for a landing

b) The time at which an arriving aircraft expects to arrive over the appropriate designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome

c) The holding time over the radio facility from which the instrument approach procedure for a landing will be initiated

d) The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the holding point to complete its approach for a landing

8. What does the term "visual approach" mean?

a) An approach executed by a VFR flight unable to maintain VMC

b) A visual manoeuvre executed by an IFR flight when the weather conditions at the aerodrome of destination are equal to or better than required VMC minima

c) An approach by an IFR flight when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not completed and the approach is executed in visual reference to terrain

d) An extension of an instrument approach procedure to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not suitable located for straight-in-approach

9. What does the term "Automatic Terminal Information Service" mean?

a) A service established to provide information concerning en-route weather phenomena which may effect the safety of aircraft operation

b) A service by which aircraft operating within a flight information region (FIR) are provided with current meteorological and operational information essential for the safety of air navigation

c) The provision of current routine information to arriving and departing aircraft by means of continuous and repetitive broadcast throughout the day or a specific portion of the day

d) A service which provides aircraft with weather reports relating to a specific number of aerodromes located within a flight information region (FIR)

10. What does the term "way point" mean?

a) A defined position on an aerodrome used for the calibration of the inertial navigation system

b) A specified geographical position used to define an area navigation route or the flight path of an aircraft employing area navigation

c) A general term meaning the taxiway- and the runway-system on an international airport

d) A signal indicating the direction of the runway-in-use

11. What does the abbreviation "INS" mean?

a) Inertial navigation system

b) Instrument navigation system

c) International NOTAM service

d) International navigation service

12. What does the abbreviation "TCAS" mean?

a) Traffic alert and collision avoidance system

b) Terminal control and advisory system

c) Tower cabin alarm stop

d) Track confirmation by automatic sources

13. What is the meaning of the term "flight level"?

a) A pressure level based on regional QNH

b) A level in the atmosphere for vertical separation which is determined by setting the altimeter to local QNH

c) A level in the atmosphere for vertical separation which is determined by setting the altimeter to local QFE

d) A level in the atmosphere for vertical separation which is determined by setting the altimeter to 1013,2 hPa

14. What does the abbreviation "SELCAL" mean?

a) A system in which radiotelephony communication can be established between aircraft only

b) A system which permits the selective calling of individual aircraft over radiotelephony channels linking a ground station with the aircraft

c) A system in which radiotelephony communication between two stations can take place in both directions simultaneously

d) A system provided for direct exchange of information between air traffic services (ATS) units

15. What does the abbreviation "SSR" mean?

a) Search and surveillance radar

b) Secondary surveillance radar

c) Surface strength of runway

d) Standard snow report

16. What does the abbreviation "RNAV" mean?

a) Area navigation

b) Radar aided navigation

c) Route navigation

d) Radio navigation

17. What does the abbreviation "RVR" mean?

a) Runway visual range

b) Radar vectors requested

c) Runway visibility report

d) Recleared via route...

18. What does the abbreviation "HJ" mean?

a) Sunrise to sunset

b) Sunset to sunrise

c) No specific working hours

d) Continuous day and night service

19. QNH is the radio telephony Q-code to indicate:

a) The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold)

b) The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on the ground

c) The atmospheric pressure measured at the aerodrome reference point (ARP)

d) The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest obstacle located on the surface of an aerodrome

20. If you are requested to report your height, to which Q-code setting would you refer?

a) QNH

b) QFE

c) QDM

d) QBI

21. If you are requested to report your altitude, to which Q-code setting would you refer?

a) QNH

b) QFE

c) QFF

d) QNJ

22. What does QDM mean?

a) Magnetic bearing to the station

b) Magnetic bearing from the station

c) True heading to the station (no wind)

d) True bearing from the station

23. QFE is the radio telephony Q-code to indicate:

a) The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest obstacle located on the surface of an aerodrome

b) The atmospheric pressure referred to a point on the surface of the earth

c) The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on the ground

d) The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or runway threshold)

24. What is the Q-code for "magnetic bearing to the station"?

a) QDM

b) QDR

c) QNE

d) QTE

25. What does QTE mean?

a) Magnetic bearing to the station

b) True bearing from the station

c) True heading to the station (no wind)

d) Magnetic heading to the station

26. What is the Q-code for "true bearing from the station"?

a) QDR

b) QDM

c) QTE

d) QFE

27. What does QDR mean?

a) Magnetic heading to the station (no wind)

b) True bearing from the station

c) True heading to the station

d) Magnetic bearing from the station

28. What is the Q-code for "magnetic bearing from the station"?

a) QDR

b) QTE

c) QDM

d) QFE

29. When transmitting time, which time system shall be used?

a) Local time (LT), 24-hour clock

b) Local time (LT) A.M. and P.M.

c) No specific system, as only the minutes are normally required

d) Coordinated universal time (UTC)

30. The time is 4:15pm. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is a possibility of confusion?

a) Four fifteen P.M.

b) Sixteen fifteen

c) four fifteen in the afternoon

d) One six one five

31. When the term "CAVOK" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the values of visibility and clouds are:

a) Visibility 10 km or more, no clouds below 5000 ft/GND

b) Visibility 10 km or more, no clouds below 1500 ft/GND

c) Visibility more than 8 km, no clouds below 3000 ft/GND

d) Visibility more than 5000 m, no clouds below 1500 m/GND

32. The time is 9:20 am. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is no possibility of confusion (same hour)?

a) Two zero

b) Twenty

c) Two zero this hour

d) Nine twenty A.M.

33. The transition level is determined on the basis of ...

a) transition altitude and QNH

b) transition height and QNH

c) transition altitude and QFE

d) transition height and QFE

34. The vertical dimension of the transition layer must be at least:

a) 1000 ft

b) 500 ft

c) 1500 ft

d) 2000 ft

35. The weather report in an ATIS broadcast contains the term "CAVOK". This means that an arriving aircraft has to expect ...

a) less than 5/8 clouds below 5000 ft

b) light precipitation

c) thunderstorm

d) no clouds below 5000 ft GND

36. Which are the units of measurement used in flight operation for wind direction and velocity (except for take-off and landing)?

a) Degrees magnetic and kilometers

b) Degrees true and kilometers

c) Degrees magnetic and miles

d) Degrees true and knots

37. Which are the units of measurement used in flight operation for wind direction and velocity for take-off and landing?

a) Degrees magnetic and knots

b) Degrees true and kilometers

c) Degrees magnetic and miles

d) Degrees true and knots

38. Which time will be issued by ATC, if an arriving aircraft on an IFR flight has to hold over the navigational aid serving as clearance limit, when holding of more than 20 minutes is expected? The ...

a) estimated time of arrival (ETA)

b) estimated elapsed time (EET)

c) estimated time en-route (ETE)

d) expected approach time (EAT)

39. What does "friction coefficient 45" in a runway report mean?

a) Breaking action medium

b) Braking action good

c) Braking action poor

d) Braking action not measurable

40. What does "friction coefficient 20" in a runway report mean?

a) Breaking action medium

b) Breaking action good

c) Breaking action poor

d) Breaking action unreliable

41. The published transition altitude is 5000 ft, the present QNH is 1005 hPa. What is the transition level?

a) FL 50

b) FL 60

c)FL 70

d) FL 80

42. The published transition altitude is 5000 ft, the present QNH is 1015 hPa. What is the transition level?

a) FL 50

b) FL 60

c) FL 70

d) FL 80

43. The published transition altitude is 5000 ft, the present QNH is 977 hPa. What is the transition level?

a) FL 50

b) FL 80

c) FL 70

d) FL 60

44. An aircraft on an IFR flight at FL 100 approaches an aerodrome for landing. The QNH given is 1018 hPa; the transition altitude is 5000 ft. When shall the pilot change the altimeter setting to QNH? When...

a) leaving FL 100

b) passing FL 50

c) passing FL 70

d) passing FL 60

45. The pilot of an arriving IFR flight shall change altimeter setting from 1013,2 hPa to QNH during the descent...

a) when passing the transition altitude

b) when commencing descent

c) after having passed the transition layer

d) when passing the transition level

46. The pilot of a departing IFR flight shall change altimeter setting from QNH to standard altimeter setting 1013,2 hPa when ...

a) passing transition level

b) reaching transition level